One of the rules is that a visa applicant must show that he is able to take care of himself and his dependents without recourse to public funds.
If i am right a migrant is not entitled to these benifits anyway and will be refused if he makes an application(lawfully i.e) for it after arriving in uk.
So isnt the very fact that he is not eligible for these benifits enough to prove that he wont be having a recourse to the public fund?
Please do correct me if i have missed something.
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