Hello,
I was deputed to work in the UK for the last one year ..
I got paid an Indian Salary of 4,40,000 INR creedited in Indian Bank Account and a UK allowance of 21600 GBP credited in UK in the past year .
Now while mentioning the previous earnings in Tier 1 application,
Question 1 : Is it right to mention the two salaries like this., specifically Indian Salary .... ?
1. UK Allowance - 21,600 GBP
2. Indian Salary - (440000/80)*5.3=29150 GBP
Total Earnings = 21,600 + 29150 = 50750
(where 80=approx gbp<=> inr conversion rate )
I guess its logical to use the uplift factor for my Indian salary while i was in the UK ? please let me know if this is not the case ..
Question 2 : I am happy to just show my Indian salary as it would be just sufficient for me to ge qualified.
But Is this legal to do so?
The reason why i ask this is I got paid in INR although my country(where i was present) of earnings was UK ..
Can i mention Country of Earnings as 'India' in thie case ...
or someone pls explain what country of earnings exactly is ?
(please note that my indian salary pay slip would mention that the location was London for that particular month.)
thanks and best regards,
tier1_king
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