Maintenance Fund - Indian Bank Account Statement -Urgent

[Devanshi]

I am in UK for last 3 months and want to switch to Tier 1 (General) from Tier 2 Visa.
Just noticed that maintenance fund requirement for dependent is 1600 GBP. So I will need 800+1600 = 2400 GBP. I kept the funds in UK bank account thinking that 1600 GBP will be requirement. Now I have some shortfall against 2400 GBP in UK bank account but have balance in Indian Bank account.

1. Can I provide Indian and UK bank account to satisfy maintenance fund requirement?
OR
2. I should apply for myself first and dependent later (I see a potential problem here because dependent is already in UK and switching my Visa might make his Visa invalid)

Please help ASAP.

[geriatrix]

1. Can I provide Indian and UK bank account to satisfy maintenance fund requirement?

Yes.

regards

[shussain]

hi,

yes you can show both accounts and can apply alone also and then dependent later on.


hussain

[vmitt]

Hi,

I am a new memeber and was impressed with this site. Here goes my 2 questions :

1.) I am in UK from 2nd Jan to 15th feb & then 10 th march till date.
I am applying for tier-1 gen in UK and understand that 800 GBP (or equivalent) is required to be maintained for 3 months.

I have these funds (800 GBP) available in indian bank account. I see in some thread its mentioned to maintain 2800 gbp for 3 months even while applying from withiin UK..That has trigered my confusion. As I am applying from within UK , I am just showing 800gbp equivalent indian bank statement for lasst 3 months. (I do not have 2800 gbp for 3 months in indian a/c). Is my understanding right?

2.) I am showing earnings as my indian salary for period april 2009 to march 2010. I am straight forward applying uplift ratio of 5.3 to my 12 month earnings (suppotred by payslips & bank statement). As I have stayed more than 6 months in india (earning period), do you foresee any issue with this.

I have all the documents and was planning to apply on 18th may before I stumbled here and checked all this....germinating so many doubts. Reuqest your support

Vishal
Mo:07574633995

[geriatrix]

Hi,

I am a new memeber and was impressed with this site. Here goes my 2 questions :

1.) I am in UK from 2nd Jan to 15th feb & then 10 th march till date.
I am applying for tier-1 gen in UK and understand that 800 GBP (or equivalent) is required to be maintained for 3 months.

I have these funds (800 GBP) available in indian bank account. I see in some thread its mentioned to maintain 2800 gbp for 3 months even while applying from withiin UK..That has trigered my confusion. As I am applying from within UK , I am just showing 800gbp equivalent indian bank statement for lasst 3 months. (I do not have 2800 gbp for 3 months in indian a/c). Is my understanding right?

800.

2.) I am showing earnings as my indian salary for period april 2009 to march 2010. I am straight forward applying uplift ratio of 5.3 to my 12 month earnings (suppotred by payslips & bank statement). As I have stayed more than 6 months in india (earning period), do you foresee any issue with this.

You may apply uplift ratio for the earnings made in India only for the months that you were physically present and working in India.

regards

[vmitt]

Hi Sushdmehta,

Just want to say thanks to you for quick reply. You dont know how much I wanted that reply come from you (as I have gone through so many other threads and liked your clear & to the point answers.)

Now I am on the cross roads for second question.Would require further guidance so giving more details on my earnings stuff to get the right answer from you.

- I need at least 30 points (age-10,quali:35) in earnings

Below are my earnings for entire 15 month period. I am in UK from January. I read from one of the threads (regarding secondment post) that during calculation the caseworker , checks where most of the time has been sent in last one year. If it is more than 6 months in single country then they he/she extrapolates that 6 month earning to 12month to give points on earnings.

So there would be 2 options for me:

1.) As I stayed more than 6 months in india for last 1 year,in your opinion caseworker would do as described above?

2.) I did some maths on below data and If we just see earnings from March 2009-dec2009 , gross pay is 611766/- which when uplifted by 5.3 comes 46.3k GBP. Now I was in india for 15 days in feb/mar 2010 (equivlent to 3.8K GBP when i calculate income on prorata basis for 15 days) ..So in total it becomes : 46.3+ 3.8 = 50.1 K GBP : equivalent to 30 points for earnings. Does this sound good to you? (Please note that I am assuming that I can consider my earning starting march 2009 to feb 2010 as 12 months in this case - considerng that we have to show 12 months out of last 15 months)

- Date Net Pay (INR) gross pay (INR)
2009 feb 59606 64667.00
2009 march54568 59323.00
2009 april 46638 67818
2009 may 51534 61138
2009 june 54057 60613
2009 july 80152 86933
2009 aug 53833 60613
2009 sept 56702 65290
2009 oct 67378 81337
2009 nov 56595 64012
2009 dec 54249 64012
2010 jan 74119 88297
2010 feb 68604 74519
2010 marc 68611 74519
2010 april 88901 104678


My apologies for scuh a long post but I needed an expert advice here , as I have no proof for UK earnings and can only rely in India earnings.Awaiting your response.Vishal

[vmitt]

Hi,

With respect to the earlier post, is it possible that I convert my earning in INR (earned during my stay in UK : jan2010 - april 2010 but ) into GBP and report it. Will that be the right thing to do as it ill simplify the complex way of calculating for 8 months, and then adding 15 odd days INR earnings. Please suggest.

Thanks, Vishal.

[geriatrix]

I read from one of the threads (regarding secondment post) that during calculation the caseworker , checks where most of the time has been sent in last one year. If it is more than 6 months in single country then they he/she extrapolates that 6 month earning to 12month to give points on earnings.

Does the policy guidance say so? Check!

If you want to minimize the chance of rejection then suggest that you read the Tier 1 (General) policy guidance *carefully* rather than depend (entirely) on the posts on this forum. Use this forum to supplement your knowledge and clear your doubts, but don't use it as the "only" source of information for your application.


regards

[vmitt]

Dear Sushdmehta,

Believe me I have gone through the policy guidance so many times. Its all about inerpretation of para 132 & 133 on page 24 of policy guidance, that matters. And since you are in this field I earnestly need your advice, please.

Need suggestions on below :

1.) Can I show my earnigs as below:

- March 2009-dec 2009 : INR with uplift factor 5.3
- Jan 2010 - 17th feb 2010 : UK equivalent of salary paid in india (without uplifting Indian salary)
- 18th feb 2010 to 28th feb : INR salary calculated for 10 days on pro rata basis (with uplift factor)

Note: I am assuming that I can consider my 12 month period from mar 2009 to Feb 2010

I am planning to apply on tuesday 18th may so request if you can please help.

Vishal.

[layman]

Hi,

I am a new memeber and was impressed with this site. Here goes my 2 questions :

1.) I am in UK from 2nd Jan to 15th feb & then 10 th march till date.
I am applying for tier-1 gen in UK and understand that 800 GBP (or equivalent) is required to be maintained for 3 months.

I have these funds (800 GBP) available in indian bank account. I see in some thread its mentioned to maintain 2800 gbp for 3 months even while applying from withiin UK..That has trigered my confusion. As I am applying from within UK , I am just showing 800gbp equivalent indian bank statement for lasst 3 months. (I do not have 2800 gbp for 3 months in indian a/c). Is my understanding right?

800.

hmm. For dependants it depends on the length of your stay in Uk(1600 if less than 12 months). Havent seen any clause for main applicants

2.) I am showing earnings as my indian salary for period april 2009 to march 2010. I am straight forward applying uplift ratio of 5.3 to my 12 month earnings (suppotred by payslips & bank statement). As I have stayed more than 6 months in india (earning period), do you foresee any issue with this.

You may apply uplift ratio for the earnings made in India only for the months that you were physically present and working in India.

regards

Cant use uplift ratio for the earnings while you are in UK. See note #132 from guidance notes

[geriatrix]

March 2009-dec 2009 : INR with uplift factor 5.3

Correct.

Jan 2010 - 17th feb 2010 : UK equivalent of salary paid in india (without uplifting Indian salary)
- 18th feb 2010 to 28th feb : INR salary calculated for 10 days on pro rata basis (with uplift factor)

It is my understanding that you cannot break up earnings in a given month and apply uplift ratio to one portion and not apply it to another. So, AIUI, Jan-Feb (whole months) - UK equivalent of salary with no uplift ratio. This said, others have a different interpretation of the rules on this point and therefore you might want to wait for a correction (or confirmation) from other members.

regards

[vmitt]

Thank you for provinding an honest reply & as I understand there is no place in policy guidance which says that we canot split & also vice versa. Would like to know if you have read somewhere in policy guidance to build this understanding,please. (so that i can refer)

Rather on para 101, page 20, it talks about calendar month to describe the period definition (14th jan to 13th feb) & salary slip to be provided for all calendar months...And I interpreted this as , if anyone is claiming earning for 14th jan to 13th feb then he needs to provide payslips for this period (if he gets monthly salary,this implies salary of jan & feb).

Thus I beleive this acts as they will pick 13 days from feb earnings (13/28* earnings). I am not writing for argument sake , rather for the purpose of getting a solution to it.

I have an alternate option , Sushdmehta, Can I apply my earnings from 20th feb2009 to 19th feb 2010 (will this fall under 15 month period?)
In this way, i get uplift for 20th feb-dec 2009, & can have flat earnings for jan - feb2010(w/o uplift). Please suggest.

Really appreciate support of you.

Vishal

[layman]

I had thought about doing this since the salary components are not necessarily from the same month always. For eg some get quarterly variable pay, so the first month could get last quarter's variable.

But then, keep things simple if you can

[vmitt]

Dear layman,
Have you replied to my post? If yes, you havent given advice for this split/no split.

You are absolutely right regarding qualreterly variable pay. My case is just borderline (even minor exchage rate fluctutaiton will discqualify me) so doing all this circus to get it to 50 gbp +. I need 30 points in earnings.

Sushdmehta : If i have not offended you, request your support or if you can route me to the person who can help here would be great.

Thanks.
Vishal.

[layman]

as replied in other post, why are you not thinking of Mar 10 earnings instead of Feb/mar 09? more earnings in Feb/mar 09 which negate the exchange rate in Mar 10?

the thing which worries me is the rejection reply to keepsmilinyaar
from other post

“You have claimed 30 points for working with XXX from March 08 to Feb 09. However I note that as you have been paid in Indian rupees, you have applied the ratio uplift to your whole earnings of INR 413408.83 received during this period. However, you spent eight of the twelve months working in the UK. We therefore do not apply the ration uplift to this period of earnings. I have calculated your earnings as follows:
In the month of March 2008, while working in India you earned INR 28756 using the ONADA rate of exchange – 0.01257 and the ration uplift your earnings for this month equals ₤ 1915. From April 2008 to December 2008 you have earned INR 313588 using the ONADA ROE – 0.01404 but not the uplift as you were working in the UK this equals ₤ 4402. And for January & February 09 you earned INR 71064, using the ONADA ROW 0.01375 and the ration uplift as you were working in India this equals ₤ 5178. Your earnings for the period = ₤ 11,495. Therefore no points have been awarded to the applicant on earnings. "

This means that the exchange rate has been applied diferently for the end of each period. Dont know what they would do for my application. But am not worried since it is not a border line case as long as they do re-calculate and just not reject saying that I have used single exchange rate

Moderators/Sages/Gurus - can you throw some light on note #129 regarding exchange rate to be considered for split income in different countries but with same currency?