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Hello friend,aruni4470 wrote:Are you aware that you cannot use uplift ratio for the salary in India when you are physically working in UK?
I have already calculated your earnings and you are getting 25 points for your earnings and that was the reason why I asked whether you were aware that the uplift ratio cannot be used when physically present in UK. For all those months you were/are in UK, you cannot use uplift ratio for your Indian earnings.ash_sun90 wrote:Hello friend,aruni4470 wrote:Are you aware that you cannot use uplift ratio for the salary in India when you are physically working in UK?
Thanks for the response.. no i am not aware.. can you please guide me with the link in ukba site...also can you help me calculating the point based on the information i have given
Thanks I read this quote in UKBA site and this is what I have done.. Please suggest if this is correct.aruni4470 wrote:I have already calculated your earnings and you are getting 25 points for your earnings and that was the reason why I asked whether you were aware that the uplift ratio cannot be used when physically present in UK. For all those months you were/are in UK, you cannot use uplift ratio for your Indian earnings.ash_sun90 wrote:Hello friend,aruni4470 wrote:Are you aware that you cannot use uplift ratio for the salary in India when you are physically working in UK?
Thanks for the response.. no i am not aware.. can you please guide me with the link in ukba site...also can you help me calculating the point based on the information i have given
132. The country in which the applicant has physically undertaken the work, rather than his/her nationality, the currency payment is made in or the country in which payment is made, determines the income band against which we will assess the earnings.
http://bia.homeoffice.gov.uk/siteconten ... idance.pdf
Yes I was physically present in india from 1st Jan 2010..aruni4470 wrote:In step 2 you have converted your Indian salary to Band D is fine, but not sure if you can multiply your UK salary with 5.3. Please wait for others to reply. Have you stayed in India for the whole of Jan 2010?
When the OP is in India he got both UK salary and Indian salary for one month (JAN 2010). He is using uplift ratio to his Indian salary is fine. But, can he multiply his UK salary? Can anybody pls confirm.
ash_sun90 wrote:Yes I was physically present in india from 1st Jan 2010..aruni4470 wrote:In step 2 you have converted your Indian salary to Band D is fine, but not sure if you can multiply your UK salary with 5.3. Please wait for others to reply. Have you stayed in India for the whole of Jan 2010?
When the OP is in India he got both UK salary and Indian salary for one month (JAN 2010). He is using uplift ratio to his Indian salary is fine. But, can he multiply his UK salary? Can anybody pls confirm.
The calculation was done automatically in UKBA site when I selected BAND D
aspirant99 wrote:ash_sun90 wrote:Yes I was physically present in india from 1st Jan 2010..aruni4470 wrote:In step 2 you have converted your Indian salary to Band D is fine, but not sure if you can multiply your UK salary with 5.3. Please wait for others to reply. Have you stayed in India for the whole of Jan 2010?
When the OP is in India he got both UK salary and Indian salary for one month (JAN 2010). He is using uplift ratio to his Indian salary is fine. But, can he multiply his UK salary? Can anybody pls confirm.
The calculation was done automatically in UKBA site when I selected BAND D
This is interesting!!
Just a couple of assumptions:
1) I assume that the amount in GBP was your salary for the month of Jan and not a backfill amount from a previous month that was credited into your account in Jan. Is my assumption correct?
2) You work permit/visa was valid during that time when you were paid for the month of jan. It might sound an insane question/assumtion but i was going through the tier-1 guidelines and came across an example: "For example: Earnings made from United Kingdom employment will only be considered if the applicant had leave to enter or remain in the United Kingdom at the time they were earned, and in a category which permitted the applicant to take that employment."
If both of the above assumptions are correct then theoretically i think you can apply uplift factors.
But as aruni pointed out logically it does not make sense as the whole idea of using uplift factor is to uplift earnings from overseas(outside UK) to bring it at par with UK earnings...
So the money that you earned in GBP in Jan-was it a backfill from a previous month that was credited in your account in Jan?..If it was then ofcourse your payslips will reflect the salary for that month and since you were in Uk at that time then you would not be able to use the uplift factor...ash_sun90 wrote:aspirant99 wrote:ash_sun90 wrote:Yes I was physically present in india from 1st Jan 2010..aruni4470 wrote:In step 2 you have converted your Indian salary to Band D is fine, but not sure if you can multiply your UK salary with 5.3. Please wait for others to reply. Have you stayed in India for the whole of Jan 2010?
When the OP is in India he got both UK salary and Indian salary for one month (JAN 2010). He is using uplift ratio to his Indian salary is fine. But, can he multiply his UK salary? Can anybody pls confirm.
The calculation was done automatically in UKBA site when I selected BAND D
This is interesting!!
Just a couple of assumptions:
1) I assume that the amount in GBP was your salary for the month of Jan and not a backfill amount from a previous month that was credited into your account in Jan. Is my assumption correct?
2) You work permit/visa was valid during that time when you were paid for the month of jan. It might sound an insane question/assumtion but i was going through the tier-1 guidelines and came across an example: "For example: Earnings made from United Kingdom employment will only be considered if the applicant had leave to enter or remain in the United Kingdom at the time they were earned, and in a category which permitted the applicant to take that employment."
If both of the above assumptions are correct then theoretically i think you can apply uplift factors.
But as aruni pointed out logically it does not make sense as the whole idea of using uplift factor is to uplift earnings from overseas(outside UK) to bring it at par with UK earnings...
My VISA was valid till 31st Dec 2009. I travelled back on 29th Dec 09. I had few on-site leave which I took it in India (for a month).
The dec salary slip doesn't show any such payment... This mentioned in Jan payslip which I got when I was in India. But the advance money for Jan was credit to my account in Dec so I think u r right..aspirant99 wrote:So the money that you earned in GBP in Jan-was it a backfill from a previous month that was credited in your account in Jan?..If it was then ofcourse your payslips will reflect the salary for that month and since you were in Uk at that time then you would not be able to use the uplift factor...ash_sun90 wrote:aspirant99 wrote:ash_sun90 wrote:
Yes I was physically present in india from 1st Jan 2010..
The calculation was done automatically in UKBA site when I selected BAND D
This is interesting!!
Just a couple of assumptions:
1) I assume that the amount in GBP was your salary for the month of Jan and not a backfill amount from a previous month that was credited into your account in Jan. Is my assumption correct?
2) You work permit/visa was valid during that time when you were paid for the month of jan. It might sound an insane question/assumtion but i was going through the tier-1 guidelines and came across an example: "For example: Earnings made from United Kingdom employment will only be considered if the applicant had leave to enter or remain in the United Kingdom at the time they were earned, and in a category which permitted the applicant to take that employment."
If both of the above assumptions are correct then theoretically i think you can apply uplift factors.
But as aruni pointed out logically it does not make sense as the whole idea of using uplift factor is to uplift earnings from overseas(outside UK) to bring it at par with UK earnings...
My VISA was valid till 31st Dec 2009. I travelled back on 29th Dec 09. I had few on-site leave which I took it in India (for a month).
IMO, unfortunately then you can't use the uplift factor..ash_sun90 wrote:The dec salary slip doesn't show any such payment... This mentioned in Jan payslip which I got when I was in India. But the advance money for Jan was credit to my account in Dec so I think u r right..aspirant99 wrote:So the money that you earned in GBP in Jan-was it a backfill from a previous month that was credited in your account in Jan?..If it was then ofcourse your payslips will reflect the salary for that month and since you were in Uk at that time then you would not be able to use the uplift factor...ash_sun90 wrote:aspirant99 wrote:
This is interesting!!
Just a couple of assumptions:
1) I assume that the amount in GBP was your salary for the month of Jan and not a backfill amount from a previous month that was credited into your account in Jan. Is my assumption correct?
2) You work permit/visa was valid during that time when you were paid for the month of jan. It might sound an insane question/assumtion but i was going through the tier-1 guidelines and came across an example: "For example: Earnings made from United Kingdom employment will only be considered if the applicant had leave to enter or remain in the United Kingdom at the time they were earned, and in a category which permitted the applicant to take that employment."
If both of the above assumptions are correct then theoretically i think you can apply uplift factors.
But as aruni pointed out logically it does not make sense as the whole idea of using uplift factor is to uplift earnings from overseas(outside UK) to bring it at par with UK earnings...
My VISA was valid till 31st Dec 2009. I travelled back on 29th Dec 09. I had few on-site leave which I took it in India (for a month).