Will Traffic Offence Committed in India effect Tier1 Extens

[username999]

HI All,

I am just wondering, will traffic offence comitted in India effect the tier1 general application extension, If it was a minor accident and went to court and no one was hurt, happened almost 7-8 years back, do we need to mention that in the application, please share if any one had similar experience, what will be the chances of winning an appeal if the application is rejected based on these grounds that the offence was not mentioned in the application, your help is much appriceated, thanks.

[ManiKing]

Traffic offence outside UK, no need to mention in application.

Thanks,
Mani

[username999]

Thank you very much mani, just curious to know is this your personal opinion or someone was already in such kind of situation, thanks

Traffic offence outside UK, no need to mention in application.

Thanks,
Mani

[thebionicredneck2003]

Username999,

Have you actually read the policy guidance?

What relevance does a case in India that happened 7 or 8 years ago have to do with your extension?

As ManiKing has already said, there is no need to mention this.


Kind Regards

[username999]

Thank you verymuch for your reply thebionicredneck2003,, was just thinking, thanks for the clarification.

Username999,

Have you actually read the policy guidance?

What relevance does a case in India that happened 7 or 8 years ago have to do with your extension?

As ManiKing has already said, there is no need to mention this.


Kind Regards

[thebionicredneck2003]

I understand your concerns Username, but you are fine.

Sometimes people seem to worry a fair bit on the forum when there is no real reason to.

Good luck and kind regards

[Manka10]

E1 on the application form clearly asks about any criminal convictions including traffic offences in UK or any other country

did you disclose that during initial application ? if not then better not disclose during extension

[thebionicredneck2003]

Good spot Manka10.

Op, please respond to Manka10's question as it would help put things in better perspective.

From my understanding of the op's initial query, I made an assumption that although it went to court, there was no charge.

Am I correct in that assumption?

If my assumption was correct, then there is no need to declare this.


Kind Regards