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pls wait n take other's advice to confirm/ not the above..132. The country in which the applicant has physically undertaken the work, rather than his/her nationality, the currency payment is made in or the country in which payment is made, determines the income band against which we will assess the earnings.
133. Where an applicant has earnings from more than one country, the points based calculator will apply the appropriate uplift ratio for each country in which the relevant earnings were made in order to provide a total UK equivalent value of earnings.
Far be it for me to question a Guru with probably far more experience than I, but a number of people have asked similar questions, and the typical response has always been that the uplift ratio used is derived directly from the country the work was physically taken part in. Meaning that even though payment is made in INR to a Indian Bank, because you are actually working inside the UK most of the time, then the uplift ratio will be 1. This is purely based on posts of previous members, and I have no actual background knowledge of this.tvn_ramesh wrote:If your spouse's earnings base company is in India, Works for it, Gets paid in India and pays tax in India.. then he can use the uplift ratio... n apply from india..
pls wait n take other's advice to confirm/ not the above..132. The country in which the applicant has physically undertaken the work, rather than his/her nationality, the currency payment is made in or the country in which payment is made, determines the income band against which we will assess the earnings.
133. Where an applicant has earnings from more than one country, the points based calculator will apply the appropriate uplift ratio for each country in which the relevant earnings were made in order to provide a total UK equivalent value of earnings.
And also i felt the question required little more clarity..sports16 wrote:My Husbands working for an MNC in India but he is over here for almost 20 days in a month visiting architects for specifications for his job he gets paid there but he physically present most often over here will the 5.3 conversion band apply for him for his salary if he applies for Tier 1 general from uk .. he is currently Dependent of tier 4 student..
Please Help
The Tier 1 guidance clearly specifies that it is where the work is physically being undertaken. In which case if you're being pedantic, 20 of 30 days of salary should be given a multiplier of 1, and 10 of 30 days of salary should be given multiplier of 5.3.sports16 wrote:My main concern is when some one works for India but works out of UK for 20 days and India 10 days where is he Physically present ?