Previous earnings multiplier question.

[atanum]

Hi,
Here is my question regarding previous earnings.

I am currently in onsite location in USA. My base office is India. I am getting salary in USD in USA. Within a particular 12 months period If I need to go back to India for a month and come back again in USA, in that case what will be my previous earnings multiplier as I will not be physically present in USA for one month. For the entire period I will get my salary in USD and will be credited to my US bank account.

Case 1

a. 11 months earnings in USD converted to GBP x 1
b. 1 month earnings in USD converted to GBP x 5.3 (As I will be physically present in India)
Total previous earnings = a + b

Case 2

12 months earnings in USD converted to GBP x 1

Please help me.

Thanks

[aruni4470]

Hi,
Here is my question regarding previous earnings.

I am currently in onsite location in USA. My base office is India. I am getting salary in USD in USA. Within a particular 12 months period If I need to go back to India for a month and come back again in USA, in that case what will be my previous earnings multiplier as I will not be physically present in USA for one month. For the entire period I will get my salary in USD and will be credited to my US bank account.

Case 1

a. 11 months earnings in USD converted to GBP x 1
b. 1 month earnings in USD converted to GBP x 5.3 (As I will be physically present in India)
Total previous earnings = a + b

Case 2

12 months earnings in USD converted to GBP x 1

Please help me.

Thanks

IMO, case 2.

[atanum]

So the country where your paycheck is running is important than the country where you physically present

[aruni4470]

So the country where your paycheck is running is important than the country where you physically present

No, the country which you are physically present in the key factor. But, in this situation you are already living in a country which has an uplift factor 1. So, you cant multiply your earnings again as your earnings are already in par with UK earnings IMO. But please get others opinion as well.

[atanum]

If the country where I am physically present is important then in this particular scenario don’t you think it will be Case 1 rather than Case 2.

[hsmp1412]

As you are still being paid in USD, your absence from USA will be seen more as a vacation rather than as a relocation for a month. Therefore, it is case 2.

If you were being paid in India for that 1 month then you could have applied the uplift ratio.

[atanum]

So where the paycheck is running that is important. In that case If I have payslip generated in India then it would have been considered as Indian earnings irrespective of my physical presence.

Some one having Indian salary and Onsite per diem could calculate previous earnings in the way I mentioned in Case 1.

Please help me to get the clarification.

[hsmp1412]

So where the paycheck is running that is important. In that case If I have payslip generated in India then it would have been considered as Indian earnings irrespective of my physical presence.

It is not just about your payslip being generated in India - it would also require your salary to be credited in INR in an Indian bank account.

If that does happen, then it would be a pretty weird case as your salary would be in INR and your physical location as per your passport stamps would be USA. Not sure how UKBA would handle that - caseworker discretion I guess.

Some one having Indian salary and Onsite per diem could calculate previous earnings in the way I mentioned in Case 1.

No as in this case it is obvious that you are physically present at onsite (as you will show your onsite per diem earnings) - no uplift ratio can be applied to the Indian component in such a case.